My roommate asked me how to spell the first word of Till death do us part (for reasons that I don’t fully recall, but it definitely wasn’t because we were starting some odd sort of relationship). We agreed there were three possibilities:
til, till, ’til
I quickly responded that ’til was the logical choice, a truncation of until, with the missing un marked by an apostrophe. Open-and-shut case. Except that it wasn’t. It kept gnawing at me. Had I seen people use till in that context? Why would they do that? So I made the same mistake I often do, and I looked into exactly what the deal was. First off, let’s look at some proponents of each form:
‘Tils:
‘Til Tuesday, Aimee Mann’s semi-pivotal 80s band
‘Til Death, Brad Garrett’s follow-up to Everybody Loves Raymond
Waiting ‘Til the Midnight Hour: A Narrative History of Black Power in America
Tills:
Till Death Us Do Part, British sitcom that paved the way for All in the Family
From Dusk Till Dawn, movie featuring Salma Hayek dancing and (so it is rumored) some other plot as well.
(Til is hard to find attestations of — people seem to be pretty good at remembering to put apostrophes at the words when the first syllable is removed.) So why would anyone spell it till if it’s coming from until? Well, it turns out that till isn’t derived from until. Till and ’til are actually two different words with two different etymologies. Till is the earlier form, attested as early as 1330; Until is actually derived from till, not the other way around as in ’til (a backformation which showed up much later). Both are common, so it’s up to you which one you like. Till is commoner in Scotland, where it can be used like dative to in some situations, while ’til is commoner in the U.S. Take your pick.


9 comments
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November 28, 2007 at 11:03 am
renaissanceguy
I learned a lot here. Thanks.
January 7, 2008 at 10:03 pm
brad
As I am sitting here watching a crappy movie set in medieval times I realize that no one uses contractions when speaking. Come to think of it either did I when I played Dungeons & Dragons in high school. I’ve been looking around and can’t find any info on when it became fashionable to say “Come hither, wench, and I’ll make you my bride.” instead of the more 12th century sounding “Come hither, wench, and I will make you my bride.”
Any ideas on this? Or is this some crappy Hollywood writer’s (writers’?) crutch to make their dialog sound right for the time.
This has nothing to do with ’til or till but I like your site in general and you seem like a pretty smart guy and you talk real good. Yuk yuk yuk!
March 16, 2008 at 5:58 pm
strydogstrut
I’ve always wondered about this. Thank you.
June 11, 2008 at 2:22 pm
Warren
Thanks for that! I was just about to tell our marketing department that they made a big mistake on a poster but it turns out that they were correct… I’ve learned something too.
July 24, 2008 at 7:36 am
Timg
According to the Associated Press Stylebook, use “till” or “until,” but never “’til.”
July 24, 2008 at 1:26 pm
Gabe
brad: Sorry I didn’t notice your comment earlier, when you might have actually been looking for a response. I am not aware of any reason to suspect that medieval speakers avoided contractions. Of course, they’d've been using Middle English, so both “I’ll make you my bride” and “I will make you my bride” would almost certainly have been ungrammatical. The avoidance of contractions is probably due to the general preference for formal language in medieval settings; this preference arises because only formal texts have made it down to us now. Imagine, for instance, if in the future, religious scriptures were the only examples of English available. Then everyone would be unaware that we use contractions in our everyday lives.
Timg: Right, but why and so what?
November 17, 2008 at 6:26 am
Alex
Commoner? or, more common?
November 17, 2008 at 7:46 pm
Gabe
Alex: Either! I favor “commoner”, even though it’s syncretic with the noun “commoner” and could be slightly confusing at times.
September 29, 2009 at 3:49 pm
Frank Gorin
English is called a Germanic language, yet is chock-full of French —
much more, it would seem, than of German. What tenuous connection
makes English officially Germanic?