A few months ago, I received John McWhorter’s new book, Our Magnificent Bastard Tongue, in the mail and I rapidly and rapaciously read through it, enjoying myself all the while. The best part of the book is not, as you might think, that it has a “dirty” word in the title. Yes, that’s a lot of fun if you’re secretly immature like I am, but what’s better about the book is McWhorter’s proposal about what led to our modern English. (The language, not the band.)
McWhorter’s main observation in the book is that English is very strange: it’s a Germanic language that doesn’t look like any other Germanic language. You probably already knew that, especially if you’ve ever known or looked at German. If you’re up on the basic history of English, you might even offer an explanation for this, noting that the Norman Invasion in 1066 resulted in England being a temporarily bilingual country, with English the language of the commoners, but French the language of the government. As always happens in these situations, the languages influenced each other, and English underwent a few changes. And to illustrate that point, you might offer the example of Latinate words in English, which often exist almost as fancier versions to their Germanic counterparts (for instance, eat and consume). That’s what I always used to do.
But McWhorter offers a somewhat different view of the strangeness of English. Sure, he notes, there are these differences in words, but it’s not just words that take English away from its Germanic roots; it’s syntax as well. For instance, Germanic languages ask questions like Sprechen Sie Deutsch?, which transliterates to Speak you German?, whereas English asks questions like Do you speak German?, with a meaningless do tossed in for good measure. Similarly, Germanic languages have hardy case systems with lots of suffixes. English only has case-marking on pronouns (I vs. me vs. my), and even there it is slowly being lost from the language (as in the protracted death of whom).
McWhorter’s proposal is that Modern English is in some sense a creole, that invasions of England by the Danish and the Norwegians, along with a significant number of remaining Celts, resulted in a substantial proportion of Old English speakers being non-native speakers of Old English. That allowed for the loss of the Old English case system, along with the adoption of certain Celtic syntactic structures (such as the meaningless do in Do you speak German?). Yet written Old English stayed much the same, because written language is very resistant to change (witness the spelling of knight) Then the Normans took over, and that led to a century and a half where French was the written language of England. When English regained its post as the written language of England, there was no longer such a strong adherence to its old ways, and so the new written language was more like the new (spoken) Middle English, the semi-creolized and weakly simplified version of Old English. So the change the Normans wrought was far more substantial than adding a few ten-dollar words to the lexicon; it also led to the debut of a syntactically different version of English.
Not knowing much about historical linguistics myself, I’m not qualified to fully assess McWhorter’s arguments, but I didn’t see any glaring holes. However, I’m a bit concerned that he’s given short shrift to the competing theories about the history of English. The counter-proposals, which McWhorter insists are held by most historical linguists, seem like strawmen. For instance, McWhorter proposes that meaningless do spread into English by contact with Welsh, which is one of only a handful of languages in the world with meaningless do, and he claims that the opposing theory is that meaningless do just appeared in English purely coincidentally. Well, given those two options, I’d obviously take the former, as I would assume most everyone would. Yet McWhorter insists that almost all historical linguists studying English hold the opposing viewpoint, so they almost certainly have a better reason to do so than what he’s telling us. But again, historical linguistics is not an area of any expertise for me, so maybe the opposing argument is as flimsy as he portrays it.
The second half of the book is an interesting corollary to McWhorter’s “English is a bastard” proposal; since the English we revere today is the result of having essentially incompetent speakers mangle it thoroughly a millennium ago, why would we protect it now? It’s a strange twist when suddenly the book starts talking about grammar rules after discussing the details of language change, and it’s not entirely fluid. But he makes a good point, and I think it’s an argument worth having in battles against prescriptivists; language is much more resilient than it is given credit for.
So, on the whole, a pretty good book, if occasionally a bit too insistent for my taste. It’s worth a read, especially if you’re into this kind of stuff.


13 comments
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March 1, 2010 at 12:28 pm
goofy
McWhorter talks about it in this old LL post: http://itre.cis.upenn.edu/~myl/languagelog/archives/003270.html
I’m not an expert either, but I think the argument against “do” being borrowed from Welsh is that it’s unusual for such an essential element to be borrowed from a substrate language. But if English really is a creole, then I guess it’s possible.
March 1, 2010 at 2:39 pm
David W
Auxiliary “do” didn’t really get going until the early Tudor period in the late fifteenth century (see graph here which I hope will work). When it did, it shot up incredibly fast (in the graph I linked to, the percentage of auxiliary “do”s in negative questions rises from about 12% to 60% in the space of around 25 years).
The first Tudor king, Henry VII, was born in Wales, but I have never heard of him bringing great Welsh influence into England. Is McWhorter’s argument related to the Tudor court?
March 1, 2010 at 3:23 pm
Chris Kearin
A minor typo in your very interesting post:
“you might even offer an explanation for this, nothing that the Norman Invasion in 1066″
You probably meant “noting.”
Feel free to delete this comment.
March 1, 2010 at 4:30 pm
The Ridger
Surely it’s as likely that do support evolved from the need to leave the subject in front of the verb while still moving the aux forward to make a question? That is, as part of the overhauling of English syntax due to its loss of case endings, which led to the more rigid word order we now see?
March 1, 2010 at 6:15 pm
David W
@The Ridger
What’s wrong the “saw you not the Olympics?” vs. “Didn’t you see the Olympics?”?
It doesn’t seem a priori necessary to change one for the other, case endings or not.
March 2, 2010 at 2:53 am
Ben T
“Germanic languages have hardy case systems with lots of suffixes.”
Well, sort of. Icelandic, Faroese, (Standard) German and Yiddish do. On the other hand, Dutch, Frisian, and the continental Scandinavian languages don’t really have any more case-marking than English (nor does Afrikaans, but then that’s probably as much of an oddity as English), and most German dialects have less than Standard German.
March 3, 2010 at 4:53 pm
The Ridger
Nothing’s “wrong” with “saw you not”, but it’s not what we ended up with. I’m only suggesting that a desire to leave the verb after the subject while aux stays in second place is as likely to have contributed to do (after all, we don’t say “I saw not”, either) as any hypothetical Welsh influence, especially so late in the game. (Desire being a very anthropomorphic verb, of course.) After all, “do” doesn’t appear with other auxiliary verbs.
March 4, 2010 at 9:40 am
Philip
“English only has case-marking on pronouns (I vs. me vs. my), and even there it is slowly being lost from the language (as in the protracted death of whom).”
How about -’s to mark possessives?
Or genitives? “A day’s work”, but “*the work of a day?”
Full disclosure: I got the genetive case information from
Wikipedia.
March 4, 2010 at 9:48 am
Gabe
Philip: Great point! I didn’t mention the genitive because I didn’t want to confuse anyone. The genitive is the most interesting case in English, since it is the only one that you have a choice to use (as you could make an of-genitive as well). And it’s the only one that shows the conversion of morphological case marking to prepositional case marking, which is the conversion process through which English lost its other cases.
March 5, 2010 at 7:42 am
Philip
Thanks, Gabe.
One of the cool things about English–a “magnificent bastard tongue,” indeed–is that it marks case three different ways: word order, prepositions, and (rarely) morphology (the -m in “whom” and -’s).
About a bazillion years ago in grad school I learned (from Suzette Elgin, a UCSD graduate and, hands down, the best teacher I ever had) that prepositions are case markers in English. When my English-teaching colleagues who haven’t taken any linguistics (tsk) ask me what the hell I mean by prepositions marking case, I like to give them this example:
John was hit with a meteorite.
John was hit by a meteorite.
How do we know that in the first example, John was in a museum somewhere, and, in the second, he was very unlucky?
March 6, 2010 at 4:32 am
Douglas Triggs
Well, if you’ve ever studied Japanese, prepositions-as-case-markers is a perfectly logical thought, although I don’t think it’s entirely true in the case of English. However, my linguistics education (such as it ever was) is a bit rusty and out of date, and I don’t know that I’d have an opinion either way without thinking about it a while. Without thinking about it too hard (in other words, talking out of my ass), I’d rather say that case and prepositions are two different ways to say something similar, something particularly exemplified by the “of”/genitive split in English. (But then, sometimes… So does word order).
At any rate, in Japanese, particles (actually postpositions, but functionally identical to prepositions, Japanese being verb-final and all that) do clearly play the role of case markers. On the other hand, by the logic in the paragraph above, it would perhaps make more sense to say Japanese doesn’t have case per se, rather that particles are exclusively used for handling that particular syntactic function (whatever you would call it).
But, you know, I was always much more interested in computational linguistics, not comparative linguistics, which I guess is one reason I’m reading here.
March 12, 2010 at 6:58 pm
Neal
I reviewed the book here, and it generated some interesting discussion between the author and a medieval scholar.
April 24, 2010 at 12:00 pm
Kate
Philip, interesting idea. However, prepositions tend to be an artificial way of describing case because they are subject to change over time (and cross-languages, which is why you have to memorize them if learning another language). Example, in Old English, speakers were perfectly comfortable to “ask at someone.”
As for “to do”, one thing that isn’t stressed enough in this article is that English went from being a synthetic language (highly inflectionalized) to an analytic language (very few, if any, inflections. Side note: This change is most likely due to change in stress patterns, with primary stress being placed, more or less, on the root of words, which gave more emphasis to that syllable than to the others. This allowed the endings of words to slowly disappear). Meaning, the inflections gave meaning to the sentence, whereas modern English relies on word order to distinguish meaning. So, “to do”, an anomalous verb, became an auxiliary verb c. 14th-15th c. and is now lexically empty but grammatically functional. This is an example of “system internal change.”
This change may or may not have come about through “verb-raising”, something Old English and Mid. English speakers were comfortable doing in order to ask a question. (Think Shakespeare). It’s not bizarre, many other languages still “verb-raise”, like French, etc. However, over time, we stopped using it, most likely, because “do/did” and “have/will” were the most frequently used “question markers”. Ex: “Have you gone to the store?” (underlying sentence being: “[?] You have gone to the store.” “Do you like peas?” ([?] You [do] like peas.”)
Just some more food for thought.